Recent content by phenaxkian

Binomial distribution. we have 2 "trials" we'll say 50% chance of being male, and that the sex of each one is independeant (e.g. the sex of one doesn't affect the sex of the other). X~B(2, .5) X=Male. We want P(X>=1). That's the same as 1 - P(X<=0). If you look up P(X<=0)in a table of...