So, I came up with (or heard while not really listening and subconsciously stole, one of the two, but I think I came up with) a fun little proof that 1 = 2. Obviously, it doesn't work - disproving an axiom is kinda hard - but I was wondering if others would come to the same conclusion as to why it doesn't that I did.
This is only for real numbers, I don't feel like dealing with imaginaries.
1. Let's start with something everyone can agree on:
x^2 = x^2
2. This is equivalent, by the definition of squaring, to:
x^2 = x*x
3. This is equivalent, by the definition of multiplication, to:
x^2 = (x + x + x + ...) x times.
4. As these are the same equation, their derivative must be the same. Take the derivative of both sides:
d(x^2)/dx = d((x + x + x + ...) x times)/dx
2x = (1 + 1 + 1 + ...) x times.
5. Condense the right side:
2x = x
6. Divide through by x:
2 = 1
Step 3 looks a little odd at first, but just think about it a bit. It works for any number; positive, negative, decimal, irrational. Not sure about imaginary numbers, which is why I restricted this to reals.
Note that the ONLY division in this entire proof is in step 6, when we divide through by x. x is not by definition zero (this works for any real x), so it's not a divide by zero problem. (The /dx in step four denotes differentiation, not division.)
So, what do YOU all think about this proof, and what has to be wrong with it? I know what I think, I'm just curious if others can come up with a more subtle (or more obvious) reason it can't work.
Enjoy!
This is only for real numbers, I don't feel like dealing with imaginaries.
1. Let's start with something everyone can agree on:
x^2 = x^2
2. This is equivalent, by the definition of squaring, to:
x^2 = x*x
3. This is equivalent, by the definition of multiplication, to:
x^2 = (x + x + x + ...) x times.
4. As these are the same equation, their derivative must be the same. Take the derivative of both sides:
d(x^2)/dx = d((x + x + x + ...) x times)/dx
2x = (1 + 1 + 1 + ...) x times.
5. Condense the right side:
2x = x
6. Divide through by x:
2 = 1
Step 3 looks a little odd at first, but just think about it a bit. It works for any number; positive, negative, decimal, irrational. Not sure about imaginary numbers, which is why I restricted this to reals.
Note that the ONLY division in this entire proof is in step 6, when we divide through by x. x is not by definition zero (this works for any real x), so it's not a divide by zero problem. (The /dx in step four denotes differentiation, not division.)
So, what do YOU all think about this proof, and what has to be wrong with it? I know what I think, I'm just curious if others can come up with a more subtle (or more obvious) reason it can't work.
Enjoy!