I was watching TDK last night and I realised something.
What if The Joker was actually targeting the mob throughout the entire film.
Think about it; 1. He brings around the death of the mob's three highest members: Gambol, The Chechen and Salvatore Maroni.
2. He burns half of their funding which he didn't even earn as he didn't keep his side of the deal (to kill Batman).
3. He orchestrates the loading of the rest of the mob onto a ferry where they have a 75% chance of being blown-up.
If he weren't foiled at the last moment by Batman he would have brought the mob to it's knees far faster than any attempts by The Caped Crusader.
The thing that sparked this idea was the explanation The Joker gives Rachel for the origin if his scars. Unlike the 1st one we see The Joker deliver to Gambol before killing him this explanation gets him visibly distressed in contrast to the 1st which you can actively see him making it up as he goes along and admits from the start that it's a lie.
I know it's almost certainly not what Nolan intended but I like to think that The Joker may have just been taking out the mob in revenge for what they did to his wife and his marriage. It makes him more relatable than the "bringing everyone in Gotham down to his own lawless level" motivation.
What if The Joker was actually targeting the mob throughout the entire film.
Think about it; 1. He brings around the death of the mob's three highest members: Gambol, The Chechen and Salvatore Maroni.
2. He burns half of their funding which he didn't even earn as he didn't keep his side of the deal (to kill Batman).
3. He orchestrates the loading of the rest of the mob onto a ferry where they have a 75% chance of being blown-up.
If he weren't foiled at the last moment by Batman he would have brought the mob to it's knees far faster than any attempts by The Caped Crusader.
The thing that sparked this idea was the explanation The Joker gives Rachel for the origin if his scars. Unlike the 1st one we see The Joker deliver to Gambol before killing him this explanation gets him visibly distressed in contrast to the 1st which you can actively see him making it up as he goes along and admits from the start that it's a lie.
I know it's almost certainly not what Nolan intended but I like to think that The Joker may have just been taking out the mob in revenge for what they did to his wife and his marriage. It makes him more relatable than the "bringing everyone in Gotham down to his own lawless level" motivation.