Zontar said:
Ah, the old "I'm no expert, but the expert is wrong" approach.
Why do I have a feeling you do not in fact have a PhD in gender psychology.
Let's see some citations then, Professor.
There are two problems with this, first is the fact that Freud was wrong. As in everything he believed about psychology has been disproved. The only reason his work is still taught is because of its place in the history of psychology, not because of its accuracy. It's like how we still teach Lamarckism in basic biology despite it being wrong.
Freud was "wrong" only insofar as the mechanisms he proposed were incorrect. But he was completely correct in his ideas that behavior is the result of processes internal to the mind, that we may not be immediately aware of what the forces influencing those processes are, that conditioned responses to external factors are what create those forces, and that we respond to the motivators informed by our instincts according to how that conditioning affects our behavior. Saying that Freud was wrong about psychology because of the whole Oedipus complex thing is like saying that Einstein was wrong about relativity because he refused to believe in Heiseinberg's principle.
Second, no, there is quite literally no evidence that gender fluidity is a thing, literally nothing.
Citation needed, Doctor.
Meanwhile there is a body of evidence showing that within a month from birth instinct will make boys and girls act differently, so at best IF it exists (so far there is no reason to assume it does give biology and instinct are the foundation of gender at a young age) it's only for a very short time before we even see distinct personality develop. IF it exists, it's irrelevant as it goes away even when we intentionally try to maintain it. It's definitely not something that someone can just stand up and say "I'm gender fluid" since instinct will take over and you're either one or the other, sexual or asexual, and in a small percentage of cases happen to have the mind and body not match up. Fluidity doesn't last long enough for us to even show it exists due to ethical concerns, should we really humour people who are far too old to possibly have retained it even if we assume it does exist, since we know they do not in fact have it?
That's a statistical difference, not a deterministic one. There will be boys who act in ways more typically associated with girls, and vice versa. That is what is meant when it is said that gender behaviors exist on a spectrum, if you make a chart for intensity of a given behavior or emotional response to a given stimulus, then the typical male subject will fall in one range on the spectrum, and the typical female subject will fall in either the same range or with great overlap (say in the case of stress response to ending a romantic relationship), a nearby range (for instance, how talkative they are in friendly scenarios, how much they like math), or a very different range (for instance, how much they like full-contact sports or wearing a dress). Functionally, a person's gender is how that person tends to appear on spectra for different behavioral tendencies.
What's important to note is that every individual will have at least some behaviors in which they fall closer to the typical range for the gender other than what they identify with. Moreover, behaviors are not static throughout life. They can change with life experiences, social adaptation and conditioning, and biological factors, and it's rarely easy or even possible to determine which factors drove which change. If a person's behaviors begin to shift such that the overall pattern in their various behavior spectra begins to more closely match a typical pattern for the other gender, then functionally that person's gender has changed.
So I'm not sure where you're getting the idea that gender is static.
Also, can we also stop disregarding biology in a topic where biology is the driving force?
Can we also maybe crack a biology textbook once in a while so that we could maybe learn when there is and when there is not any explanatory power in invoking biological explanations and the risks of begging the question?
Of course biology "drives" sociology, because humans are animals and therefore are a part of biology. But the argument "Men and women have some biological differences, and men and women behave differently in some ways, therefore behavioral differences in men and women (ie gender) are due to biology so that sex and gender are the same thing" is begging the question because it presupposes that biology is the only influence on behavior.
Moreover, if gender behavior differences were instinctive, then a gender binary and the gender norms we see in our culture would be universal to all cultures. This is not what is observed, so it must be the case that biology is not the only factor responsible for gender and gender differences.
erttheking said:
I call people what they want to be called. It's an incredibly simple system that's served me well. If someone wants to be called her but I call that person he, that's just me being a twat. Am I proving anything? No. I'm just making someone uncomfortable.
What are you, some kind of PC radfem SJW? Manners? What?