Poll: Is it rape if you have consensual sex with a willfully intoxicated person?

Recommended Videos

Athinira

New member
Jan 25, 2010
804
0
0
peruvianskys said:
This to me seems like a strawman because I really don't think it happens as often as people seem to believe. If both parties are drunk and they both consent then sure, it's not rape. But if one isn't drunk, or one is filling the other with alcohol with the express intent to bang him or her, etc. then it is, and the latter is almost always the truth of the situation when you have these "She was totally fine with it last night, fuckin' ladies" stories that bros like to throw around.
Short answer: No.

The exception is of course if the person is smashed to the point where they pass out (or close) and clearly aren't in any state to make any even remotely rational decisions, in which case it's most likely that the non-smashed person forced the situation upon the other at a point where he or she couldn't react in a reasonable way. But if you just got someone 'happily drunk', and they suddenly want to ride your python, then you're basically home free, because at that point they are still in a state where they know whats going on and can say no.

It's peoples own responsibility to control their drinking. When you're drunk, you do stupid things (which is why drinking is forbidden to minors), but it's still YOU who does them. If you don't like the things you do when you're drunk, then start drinking responsibly, or stop drinking altogether. I stopped drinking, partly because i was tired of hangovers, but also because drinking brought out my worst behavior which i didn't like subjecting others to. It was my choice to make, and i decided I'd rather avoid alcohol than being a drunk jerk.
 

00slash00

New member
Dec 29, 2009
2,321
0
0
oh my god, these poll result have made me lose so much faith in humanity. if two people agree to sex before theyre fucked up and then fuck later after drinking, it isnt rape. if its someone with whom youre in a relationship and have been sexually active, its probably not rape. however, if you meet someone and after one or both of you are drunk, you end up having drunk sex that night...yes, that is rape. dont fuck drunk people. this isnt a hard concept
 

Digitaldreamer7

New member
Sep 30, 2008
590
0
0
unless he forces her to drink, or get's her drunk without her knowledge, it's not rape, it's a poor life decision.

I've been in the same situation. I knew the girl wanted to get me drunk so i'd overlook the fact that she's a fatty, or crazy, or both. She get's me drunk, I allow her to go down on me only because im drunk, wake up the next day and realize I let a fatty hoover my knob or that I stuck my knob in crazy. By your definition she sexually assaulted me or raped me, when in reality it was my choice to get shitfaced, and in my drunken haze it was my poor decision making skills that allowed that to happen when in reality I should have manned the harpoons and ran for the hills. Do I blame her? No. I blame myself for not saying no.
 

AVATAR_RAGE

New member
May 28, 2009
1,120
0
0
awesomeClaw said:
Ok, let´s say you´re at a party. At the party, you meet a cute young man(or woman, or transgender or whoever you want to fuck) and you two get along nicely. You both get a little tipsy and the man/woman asks you if you want to go home with him/her. You go home with him/her and have a night of awkward drunk sex WHICH NONE OF YOU OBJECT TO DURING THE ACTUAL SEX.

HOWEVER, the morning after, the man/woman says that S/he regrets sleeping with you, and now claims that you raped him/her. Is she/he in the right?

Personally, if you *can* consent, your consent is almost always valid. You should know where your limits are. Note: I am talking about being drunk enough that you *can* actually talk and orally(heh) consent. I don´t need to tell you having sex with someone unconcious is rape. I´m also not talking about the cases where someone put something in your drink. Putting something in the other persons drink, is rape, since you actively tricked the person into going over his/her limits.

But what do you think? Am I just a sick victimblamer(although I believe there is not a victim in thise case?), am I thinking completely straight? Something inbetween?
Legally yes but only if a man does it, because apparently men more responsible.
 

OuroborosChoked

New member
Aug 20, 2008
558
0
0
Jarimir said:
Wow... all I can say is wow...
Either you 2 are playing devil's advocate to a fault, or you take drinking and sex FAR TOO SERIOUSLY, possibly because you've DONE NIETHER. I am not trying to insult you because I think I'm better than anyone that hasnt, so let's try to break this situation down rationally.
Not that it's relevant, but I have done both, you ass.

My point can be summed up succinctly as this:

Boom129 said:
Rule of thumb, if you have to ask then the answer is probably yes
If you're in doubt, don't do it. If you think it could come back to you, don't do it. If the other person is incapacitated, they cannot legally provide consent. That's the end of the line. This has NOTHING to do with personal experiences and your implication that it does is childish, insulting, and irrelevant.
 

minuialear

New member
Jun 15, 2010
237
0
0
Jarimir said:
minuialear said:
Is this the kernal of "truth" you think I am missing from your posts?
No, it was to explain the context of "then don't have sex with people," because you clearly missed it when you started accusing me of hating casual sex. It's pretty far from the core of what I said, actually, which is why I made sure this time you couldn't not understand it and therefore distract the conversation further from the point at hand.

Then my simple point is, if I cant tell, then the person IS NOT impaired past the ability to give consent for sex.
Really? Someone who isn't sloppy drunk can't still be too drunk to make that decision? Or are you psychic? If so, can you tell me what the winning Lotto ticket numbers will be?

(4) A person does not consent to sexual activity if the activity occurs while he or she is so affected by alcohol or some other drug that he or she cannot consent or refuse to consent to the activity.
(4) A person does not consent to sexual activity if the activity occurs while he or she is so affected by alcohol or some other drug that he or she cannot consent or refuse to consent to the activity.
If someone is so affected by alcohol that they can't refuse to consent, they fall under this category. If someone is so affected by alcohol that they can't think clearly, and thus can't refuse to consent, would they not fall under that category?

If I wanted to "play it safe" I would never go to the bar in the 1st place. I might be shot, stabbed, beaten up, or mugged. I might get into a traffic accident. In the "parallel" situations you bring up in compairson, I could easily spend as much time judging a person's impairment as I do waiting for that big ass car to get out of the way. A little fore-knowledge of guns and I could tell for myself if the safety was on, or I would know how to clear the chamber and make sure the gun is unloaded making the status of the safety moot.
The question wasn't what you can do to avoid playing it safe; the question was, is it a violation of your rights to be expected to make sure what you're doing is safe and within the boundaries of the law?

I am all for people being more intelligent and responsible, but you would have people scared to the point of inaction for (I am guessing) an entire evening, despite all indications that consentual sex is indeed possible that very night.

If people let such hysterical and paranoid criteria as you suggest prevent them from having sex, then there would be no such thing as casual sex. I still cant help but to suspect that is the real thing you are trying to persuade people from having.
Considering this one again misses the entire point of why I made this argument in the first place, considering I re-quoted what I said about why I'm making this argument at least once and told you several times that you're off, thus alerting you to the fact that these points existed, and considering you made not one mention about that stuff I requoted (probably meaning that either you didn't read it or you're still convinced I'm lying to you and thus didn't think it important), I have no idea what to tell you at this point. Seriously, either read what I've told you thus far, or else I'm done addressing the points you make that are off the mark (this one is one of those, in case I didn't point that out well enough for you before).
 

minuialear

New member
Jun 15, 2010
237
0
0
Jarimir said:
minuialear said:
Really? Someone who isn't sloppy drunk can't still be too drunk to make that decision?
Really, that is what I am saying. That is what the law in my state, several other states, your country, and several other countries supports.
The law doesn't specify how drunk someone must be, other than that the alcohol must affect their ability to consent (and if you disagree, please point out the exact line that specifies what behavioral qualifications must be met while drunk in order to be considered too drunk for consent). Just because, perhaps in your case, that doesn't occur until you are tripping-over-yourself-drunk, doesn't mean this isn't the case for everyone else.

Also, in order to tie this into your next point, the reason the law mentions drunkenness at all, is to point out that people act differently while drunk than they would while sober (and similarly while intoxicated with drugs, etc). The idea is, if someone agrees to have sex with five people one night while sober, (s)he can't call it rape, because (s)he was not under any drug-related influence and therefore was (in the eyes of the law) in full control of his/her faculties and was capable of giving lawful consent to sex. If, however, a person is intoxicated (i.e., affected by some substance), then (s)he is not in full control of his/her faculties, in the eyes of the law, and therefore is incapable of giving lawful consent.

Cant consent != might not consent

One represents an abject inability, the other represents potential regret.
If someone can't consent (i.e., they're too out of it to give lawful consent), how do you know that they would if they were in control of their faculties? The very fact that they can't consent necessitates the possibility that, were they able to consent, there is a possibility that they would choose not to.

Put another way: let's say some chick gets drunk and her cousin (who she knows), who happens to be at the party and happens to have a thing for her, asks her for sex. At this point she's so drunk she can't really process who he is, but she's not sloppy drunk (e.g., she's not tripping over herself, slurring her words, or talking louder than normal). If she has sex with him (ignoring incest laws, if they apply), this would be considered rape. It's rape because she was so intoxicated that she couldn't think clearly to the point where it affected her ability to refuse sex (which, we'll specify, would have been the obvious decision for her if she had been sober and realized she was about to have sex with a cousin).

Doesn't matter if the cousin (as an active party) thought that she wasn't that drunk and was willingly choosing to sleep with him. Doesn't matter that she wasn't falling out of her chair or doing other crazy stuff. Not everyone becomes a sloppy drunk when they get to the point where their thinking abilities get impaired, for one, so it's a pretty strange metric to go by. It's about as effective as assuming it takes three shots to get a woman drunk.

Plus I'd also point out that the NZ law also states:

A person does not consent to an act of sexual activity if he or she allows the act because he or she is mistaken about its nature and quality.
Meaning a person has to be made fully aware of what the sex entails, before (s)he has consented to it. For example, if some chick tells a guy that she's on birth control and therefore that he doesn't need a condom, and he finds out later that she's preggers with his baby, and that she had lied to him in order to get pregnant, that qualifies as the guy not giving consent. Because as stated before, consent's not a one-time, "You said yes so you can't say you didn't!" thing. Now, if someone's pretty drunk and has trouble processing basic stuff as it is (and again, that person doesn't necessarily have to be sloppy drunk to be at this point), how would you argue that they are also capable of being fully aware of what the sexual activity will entail?
 

userwhoquitthesite

New member
Jul 23, 2009
2,177
0
0
No, it isn't rape.
Nor would it be if the man were sober.
If the woman willfully got drunk, and decided (impaired or not) she wanted to fuck, then it isn't rape.
If she changes her mind mid-fuck, its only rape if you keep going.
 

userwhoquitthesite

New member
Jul 23, 2009
2,177
0
0
minuialear said:
As soon as someone starts drinking, then, assume it's not proper to have sex, unless you two know each other well and have a genuine understanding of what you both would want (more likely than not, this would involve being in a steady relationship with someone, at which point you'd hopefully be in sync with your partner sexually. If you can't tell, err on the side of caution.

If people (in this thread in general; not necessarily you) are going to argue that one can't use the fact that they were intoxicated to claim a lack of consent because people can't tell that one's drunk, then it stands to reason that we can just as legitimately argue that one can't claim innocence just because one didn't bother to ensure his/her partner was in a non-compromised state.

It's always better to be safe than sorry, and frankly, if you give a crap about the person you're about to sex up, it should come naturally to want to wait until your partner's not intoxicated/potentially unable to make smart decisions to do something that can have serious ramifications. The only exceptions to that being if you two have an understanding based on an existing relationship, etc.
You are a wrong person, who is incorrect about THINGS!