Hiya escapists.
So I just happened to be thinking of time travel in a "many worlds"-setting (I was watching Steins; gate), and a question that I thought was interesting arose:
Please note that I don't really know much about the many worlds theory. Feel free to point out mistakes I make concerning how such a world would work.
In the many worlds theory, there are an infinite number of timelines.
It just so happens that you and a friend have invented a time machine of sorts that allows you to jump between timelines. This machine only has a "random" button, that sends the person who presses it to a random point in a random timeline (Except any point in a timeline in which they have been born and have not yet died. Just to simplify the scenario.).
Your friend then goes ahead and presses the "random" button. Furious, you decide to chase after them (they owe you money) by the only means you know: pressing the random button (let's say you can bring the time machine with you when you travel so you can try as many times as you like, but your friend didn't for some reason).
Of course; an infinite number of timelines spring from the point your friend has travelled to. This means that your friend is currently in an ifinite number of timelines. There is also the infinite number of timelines springing from the line in which they didn't press the button in the first place.
Problem is, there is also an infinite number of timelines in which your friend is not.
To me, this makes it appear that the probability of you ending up in a timeline your friend is in is ∞/∞ which presents some logical problems.
However, a friend of mine informs me that infinities can have different values. For example, you can prove that one infinity is twice as large as another. Stuff like that.
Assuming, then, that every timeline branches off at the same rate, the ratio between the ∞ in the numerator and the ∞ in the denominator should stay constant.
Since the point your friend has jumped to and the timeline in which he didnt travel both have an infinite number of parallell worlds, the number of timelines without your friend in them should be ∞ times larger.
This sets the ratio of worlds with your friend vs. worlds without your friend to 2/2*∞ = 1/∞
Which means the probability of ending up in a world where you can find your friend is zero.
So I turn to you, escapists, and ask: Is this correct, or am I talking complete nonsense?
How can it be that when an infinite number of the worlds you can travel to contain your friend, the chance of travelling to the same world as your friend is zero?
So I just happened to be thinking of time travel in a "many worlds"-setting (I was watching Steins; gate), and a question that I thought was interesting arose:
Please note that I don't really know much about the many worlds theory. Feel free to point out mistakes I make concerning how such a world would work.
In the many worlds theory, there are an infinite number of timelines.
It just so happens that you and a friend have invented a time machine of sorts that allows you to jump between timelines. This machine only has a "random" button, that sends the person who presses it to a random point in a random timeline (Except any point in a timeline in which they have been born and have not yet died. Just to simplify the scenario.).
Your friend then goes ahead and presses the "random" button. Furious, you decide to chase after them (they owe you money) by the only means you know: pressing the random button (let's say you can bring the time machine with you when you travel so you can try as many times as you like, but your friend didn't for some reason).
Of course; an infinite number of timelines spring from the point your friend has travelled to. This means that your friend is currently in an ifinite number of timelines. There is also the infinite number of timelines springing from the line in which they didn't press the button in the first place.
Problem is, there is also an infinite number of timelines in which your friend is not.
To me, this makes it appear that the probability of you ending up in a timeline your friend is in is ∞/∞ which presents some logical problems.
However, a friend of mine informs me that infinities can have different values. For example, you can prove that one infinity is twice as large as another. Stuff like that.
Assuming, then, that every timeline branches off at the same rate, the ratio between the ∞ in the numerator and the ∞ in the denominator should stay constant.
Since the point your friend has jumped to and the timeline in which he didnt travel both have an infinite number of parallell worlds, the number of timelines without your friend in them should be ∞ times larger.
This sets the ratio of worlds with your friend vs. worlds without your friend to 2/2*∞ = 1/∞
Which means the probability of ending up in a world where you can find your friend is zero.
So I turn to you, escapists, and ask: Is this correct, or am I talking complete nonsense?
How can it be that when an infinite number of the worlds you can travel to contain your friend, the chance of travelling to the same world as your friend is zero?