Frission said:
I don't know about that. Hitler used the Versailles Treaty as a rallying point, but the main reason for Hitler's rise to power was the Great Depression in 1930, which caused high employment. There's a 14 year margin between the Treaty of Versailles and Hitler being appointed as Chancellor in 1933. A time where people like President Hindenburg and such were in power.
Germany paid less because of the Versailles Treaty, then France after the Franco Prussian.
For my native country it would be the First World War. In one month at Verdun, it managed to kill 698,000 people. More men than the entirety of the American Civil War, to put it in proportion. An entire generation was destroyed. There was also no lesson learned."War is bad" was not learned, "misplaced nationalism" was not learned and " horrible weapons like mustard gas should not be used" was not learned.
No disrespect intended, but when I read this post, I was ready to bust a vein in response.
But you cannot be serious regarding the reparations of WWI being greater than that of the Franco-Prussian War. In relative terms, the French had to pay the German Empire five billion francs in 1871, while the Germans had to pay a hundred and thirty-two billion marks in 1919 (onwards). In real terms, that equates to the French owing USD30billion in 2012 compared to the Germans owing USD450billion in 2012. Whichever way you cut it, the Germans would always suffer the greater hardship.
The only possible counter you can have against this is that the French were given a time limit of five years to pay. How long did it take for them to pay? Considering one of the terms of the Treaty of Versailles 1871 was the continued occupation of eastern France until the payment was completed, the final German regiments crossed the border in 1873. Germany (no thanks to Hitler) only finished paying the WWI reparations in 2010. Even under JM Keynes' analysis, even if they paid regularly for as long as their economy could afford it, payment would only be completed in 1988. The fuck-up with the Treaty of Versailles was that Germany was not significantly pacified, conciliated or weakened to justifiably maintain a state of peace. However, you'd be hard pressed to find a solution that would be both acceptable to all and workable in bringing about the immediate recovery of international prosperity except the complete and utter total annihilation of the German speaking world, and I swear to God if anyone posts something supporting such a notion even as a joke, I'll pour so much vitriol into my response I'll be banned.
Sure the Paris Commune was not a good episode, particularly Thier's reprisal, but compared to Germany, France got a hell of a lot of help and was economically stable again within twenty years, and she had a lot of friends, to the extent that even Britain the Old Enemy warmed to France culminating in the state visit of 1903 by Edward VII which ensured definite peace if not outright political support between France and Britain for the first time in god only knows how long. After WWI, few nations were willing to help Germany recover and those that were, were either Austria (and in a likewise shit-hole state) or villified by the powers that mattered, so they did nothing. How was that supposed to aid pacification and conciliation?
Stopping the War, or at least keeping it a war between Austria and Serbia would be nice.
See, war between Austria & Serbia would've happened almost regardless, because Germany regarded Austria as the useless big brother of the German speaking world and Serbia hardly registered on their radar. Austria was a failing empire, too diverse and too centralised to be anything more than a quadraplegic on the verge. No, if you want to blame someone German for this, blame Bismarck and, within this context, his influence over the young pre-1888 Prince Wilhelm and driving a wedge between him and his father. Had Frederick III been allowed to raise his son as he wished, the German Empire would've followed the way of the British Empire (i.e. constitutional monarchy) within twenty years (i.e. before 1910), France would've been reconciled with Germany and not need two World Wars to smash it into both their heads as would Poland (though Poland would probably exist as the Grand Duchy of Warsaw or something along those lines, though I like to think Frederick would've ceded part of the Duchy of Prussia to them as a gesture, however unlikely that may have been). And Frederick was regarded with respect and admiration in France, tempered only by the fact that he was German.
OT: As a Brit - administration of the thirteen colonies. They had taxation, but without possibility of self-arbitration. Parliament insisted on micromanaging everything that happened over the pond, and they were bound to hash it up. Grant the colonies an extent of autonomy of government, effectively as a protectorate of the British Empire and the American Revolution need not have ever happened.
As a Cantonese - don't really know... I think my old man's childhood could've been better without the Japanese occupation... *shrug*