Does it though? Again, I have seen no one provide this rate and it was always brought back to the % of population belonging to group X. I have never seen you bat an eye. Funny how exposure to a police intervention is suddenly a necessary filter....and all the other factors I just laid out.
No, it matters because it blows a hole in the false equivalence you're drawing.
One has a massive difference in rate. The other simply doesn't. If you want to claim they're the same, based solely on overall numbers with no adjustment for sample size, then that just shows a pretty shoddy understanding of statistics.
I have tried to look for the data but unfortunately people only seem to care about race (and even than, like 95% of the results are articles which always discuss the proportion of deaths by population, not by police intervention). But I did come across this study (no gender disparity was analysed unfortunately): https://www.pnas.org/content/116/32/15877
"Finally, the lack of anti-Black or anti-Hispanic disparity and the impact of race-specific crime are consistent with an exposure argument, whereby per capita racial disparity in fatal shootings is explained by non-Whites’ greater exposure to the police through crime. This explanation is consistent with studies that have used violent crime as a benchmark for testing disparity (20, 23⇓–25)"
So... is it that clear?
Last edited: