geizr post=18.73797.836214 said:
?From our oft-quoted charts, we know that this possibility is 25% for a set of two pups regardless if we treat this as a permutation or combination problem, and that the possibility of two males is 25% for a set of two pups regardless if we treat this as a permutation or combination problem. No matter how you work the problem, it is inescapable that the chance of having two males is 1 in 3 or 33%.
This alludes to an advanced subtlety that one can introduce called degeneracy. Suppose, for example, we considered the M/F and F/M configurations to be the same thing, say a M/F combination. Some may use this as a justification that the probability must be 50%, because the two configurations are really the same. However, we have to be careful because, as it turns out, the M/F combination has a degeneracy of 2. This means it counts twice, while the M/M and F/F combinations count only once each. So, we would still obtain a probability of 33% because of the degeneracy.
M/M + M/F = 1 + 2 = 3 = T
M/F ÷ T * 100% = 2 ÷ 3 * 100% = 66% (probability of one male and one female)
M/M ÷ T * 100% = 1 ÷ 3 * 100% = 33% (probability of both males)
Compare this to the original logic in which the configurations are all distinct and nondegenerate:
M/M + M/F + F/M = 1 + 1 + 1 = 3 = T
(M/F + F/M) ÷ T * 100% = (1 + 1) ÷ 3 * 100% = 66% (probability of one male and one female)
M/M ÷ T * 100% = 1 ÷ 3 * 100% = 33% (probability of both males)
The only change is how we have to calculate the probabilities, not the final result.
In all honesty, I can see how people can easily get the wrong answer of 50% because we are all taught that there is always a 50% chance of being born male or female. This is true for a single individual; however, it is not necessarily true when we start talking about specific combinations of males and females, as occurs in this problem.