No, we are reading your explanations. Mathematically, you're right. Logically, you're not. To use the tired analogy of a coin toss, if you flip a coin twice, the the first flip has no bearing on the second. That is this exact situation, seriously, you could have replaced "Male puppy" with "Heads coin" in the original problem. The main discrepancy is cause by the fact that the problem is worded vaguely enough that the answer could be either 50% 0r 33%.Samirat post=18.73797.810954 said:No, because it doesn't say the "first" puppy is male. It could be either one. So this means that instead of just having two choices: Male and Female, and Male and Male, you have three: Male and Female, Male and Male, and Female and Male. In only one of these is the other dog male. Hence, 1 out of 3.orannis62 post=18.73797.810725 said:Guys, it would be 33.3(repeating)% if the question was asking for a set, but it's not. It's asking for the other puppy, not how they are together. As such, the first puppy might as well not even be there, as it has no bearing on the gender of the second. Therefore, it's 50%.
In hindsight, I don't know why I'm bothering to write this, since those that say 50 percent aren't even reading the explanations.
You're right that the situation is exactly the same if you use coins. And if you flip a coin, and it's heads, then the probability that the other coin will be heads is 50%. But:orannis62 post=18.73797.811069 said:No, we are reading your explanations. Mathematically, you're right. Logically, you're not. To use the tired analogy of a coin toss, if you flip a coin twice, the the first flip has no bearing on the second. That is this exact situation, seriously, you could have replaced "Male puppy" with "Heads coin" in the original problem.
This works, except that it doesn't eliminate the situation which is eliminated in the problem. There can't be two females. This looks at the complete set:MF, FM, MM, FF. But there can't be two females. Therefore, there are only three outcomes, and only in 1 is the other dog a male.crepesack post=18.73797.811187 said:25% ok heres how sex chromosones are xx & xy therefore through the use of a punnet square you can resolve this
X X therefore i could randomly select another male at a 50%*50% chance in other words 25%
X|XX XX
Y|XY XY
I'd already put some thought into that and had a hefty piece of doubt, but I think I have the answer.Cheeze_Pavilion post=18.73797.811084 said:Stuff I'd love to quote but feel would add too much length to this post.
Okay, here's the problem. We're all starting with:Cheeze_Pavilion post=18.73797.811205 said:The problem is though that we get new information--we get the Bath Giving Man searching among the puppies for a male. The 75 percent you're talking about is not only M/M and M/F, but also F/M. Once the Bath Giving Man goes searching and finds a male, we can eliminate not only F/F but also F/M because the questions changes from "Two Unknown Puppies" to "One Known Puppy and One Unknown Puppy."
There's a difference between 'what's the probability of at least one male among a set of two unknown puppies' and 'what's the probability of at least one male among a set of two puppies, one known to be male'. The former is 75%, but the latter is 100%.
The question wasn't, "Tell me when you find a male," but rather, "Is at least one a male?"A shopkeeper says she has two new baby beagles to show you, but she doesn't know whether they're male, female, or a pair. You tell her that you want only a male, and she telephones the fellow who's giving them a bath. "Is at least one a male?" she asks him. "Yes!" she informs you with a smile. What is the probability that the other one is a male?
Those last two questions, when added together, amount to the same question as just the first.Cheeze_Pavilion post=18.73797.811267 said:No, we didn't ask him if either of two things are true, those two things being 'at least one is tails' OR 'both are tails'. We only asked "Is at least one a male?" not "Is at least one a male OR are both male."
I think that's exactly the issue the 33% percent crowd is taking into account - but I can't understand your logic here, so feel free to explain it again.Cheeze_Pavilion post=18.73797.811267 said:That's what I think the issue is--saying 33% is not taking into account the fact that once an event actually occurs, the probability of it occurring goes up to 100%. It's like the lottery--the chances of winning a future lottery may be .8353498574357%, but if you *actually do win the lottery* your chances of winning go up to 100%.
(2/3... I think).A man walks into a very strange pet shop. The strange thing is that all pets are picked at random from the type of animal you've selected (so say you ask for a cat, a random cat is selected for you). You are allowed to ask one question to the shopkeeper about the range of animals you are looking for.
The man asks for a puppy. The teller tells him that there are two in stock, and asks what his question is. He says, 'Well I really want a dog (as opposed to a *****); is there at least one dog?' the teller checks the computer, and says 'Yes'.
What are the odds that he walked out of the shop happy?
Yes, I think I have it (funny how we each have the cure for the others' ills...)Cheeze_Pavilion post=18.73797.811307 said:However, what if we don't count T/T because we put one coin Heads up and only flip the other coin? Then we can't just stop at pulling T/T out of the matrix. We ALSO have to pull out *either* H/T *or* T/H, and that's an exclusive 'or' there. If we leave both H/T and T/H in, then our matrix no longer reflects the reality that we're only flipping one coin. It *would* reflect the reality if we eliminated F/F because the rules were that we flip two coins and T/T is considered a reflip, but if the rules of the game are that one coin is placed Heads up before any flip, then you can't just stop at eliminating T/T--you also have to eliminate, like I said, one and only one of T/H or H/T.
The connection to the puppy question is that once Bath Giving Man says "Yes!" to the question "Is at least one a male?" that is the equivalent of changing the game from flipping two coins to flipping one and leaving one Heads up. The 33%/redistribute .25 is not accurate under the 'lay one down Heads up and flip one' rules, but only under the 'reflip any T/T result' rules.
And it's the Puppy Bathing Man, not the Puppy Sex Reassignment Surgery Man, so no reflipping! ;-D
That's the thing though, you don't re-flip the coin. The genders of the dogs remain the same throughout the exercise. I know it's stating the obvious, but bear with me. Actually, let's go back to the coins. The probability that a coin lands on heads is 50%. You toss two coins. You make it physically impossible to get two tails, all other options retain their probability. So you've got HH, HT, TH, representing the fact you know one is a head. What I think you're doing is seeing the guy holding a head in his hands (like I think people on both sides of the discussion are beginning to...), and saying that the other coin is still unknown. Which it is. But then you're saying that because it's unknown, it must have a 50% chance of being a head, as stated above.Cheeze_Pavilion post=9.73797.811284 said:True, but in this case, we're no longer flipping two coins. We're only flipping one--the Unknown Dog. The Known Dog is like a coin left on the table facing heads up while we flip the other one.