BGH122 said:
LadyRhian said:
We already discussed the parts about low sperm count earlier. There are ways of getting around that. So I'm not going to cover that again. All I can say is, your science is out of date there.
Even any woman and any man having sex... a baby will not automatically occur if they have sex once. I admit, the chance that the woman will go up the more times they do have sex (assuming everything is working correctly), but it's not "have sex and BAM! you're pregnant". It can happen, but does not in all cases.
No, but the implication of 'unsafe' sex is that it will result in a far higher chance of having a child than protected sex. This sets the ground for a valid presumption that both parters are fine with a child.
I think a lot of men would disagree with you there.
Would you mind linking me to the wiki article (or some such) on the ability to give men with low sperm count children? I'd be interested to read up on that, if you don't want to go searching around on my behalf then that's fine!
No problem. There are several ways to help men. First, there is a difference between "impotence" defined as an inability to get or keep an erection, and infertility, defined as being unable to conceive. In some cases, there is no help, as when Sperm are dead. But in sperm with low motility, sperm are collected and injected into the womb after the woman have ovulated. There is also the "Test Tube Baby" procedure- where eggs are removed, fertilized outside the womb, and then placed back in. The one about removing the Genetic material from a sperm and inserting some from another male was something I read a few years ago in a science magazine, but the other two are definitely done on a fairly regular basis.
http://www.amazingpregnancy.com/pregnancy-articles/464.html
http://www.amazingpregnancy.com/pregnancy-articles/370.html
kingpocky said:
BGH122 said:
LadyRhian said:
Okay, fair enough, I should properly define sex. I'm defining sex here as heterosexual penetrative vaginal sex without a condom. Frankly, oral, anal or homosexual sex isn't sex: it's inducing orgasms, that's not sex. Sex is an activity in which the natural goal is reproduction (I accept that this isn't the real goal for most humans, but this is, nonetheless, the physical goal of sex). When partaking in sex with a condom we should definitely go under a different rule to partaking in sex without a condom, since the man's donning of a condom implies that he's not intending to have a child. He may not then redefine the intended consequence of protected sex ad hoc if it just so happens that the woman gets pregnant. There's an implicit agreement that protected sex is not designed to result in a child.
Ah, I see. So we were arguing about different things here, really. Although plenty of people are quite stupid and don't think about protection, but I really don't care to even decide what I think about them.
Although off topic, sex is only partially for reproductive purposes for humans. As far as reproduction goes, we're the least efficient animals on the planet. Most animals only have to have sex once to get pregnant. A healthy human couple having sex every day for a month only has about a one in four chance of pregnancy. If it didn't serve another very important purpose, that would be a lot of wasted energy.
That's an interesting argument, what other purpose does it serve?[/quote] Pleasure. Bonding.
BGH122 said:
LadyRhian said:
Really? Then you are arguing a circular definition. Because the only possible reason to have sex is to get pregnant. (Natural goal being reproduction). Most mammals can only have heterosexual sex when the female is in estrous (ready to have a baby/in season). Otherwise, the man can't get her to do anything at all. But humans, and some other species, can have sex any old time they like, whether a baby is going to happen or not. We share this with the Bonobos, who also have lots of sex (procreative and not). In short, I do not accept your definition of sex as being defined as only procreative. Sex embraces a wide range of human activities and experiences. What if the woman is on the pill? Is it no longer sex in that instance? Honestly, I find your definition ludicrous.
Yes, it's no longer the sex to which I'm referring if the woman is on the pill because the relevant point here is that taking no contraception is a implicit statement that both parties are fine with having a child. Vaguely referencing to the fact that humans have sex for reasons other than reproduction isn't relevant to disproving the point that, since contraception is available, not using any contraception should be seen as accepting that the likelihood of conceiving is far higher and that since both parties are partaking in the sex knowing this both parties are fine with this consequence.
Furthermore, the only possible reason to have sex isn't to get pregnant, when using contraception, it is for pleasure's sake. My logic isn't circular either, I'm not claiming that contraception alters the definition of sex because it alters the definition of sex. I'm claiming that, as far as perceived consequences of sex goes, contraception vastly alters the definition of sex and that's valid because it's about the perception of consequences of the action. The only reason I brought up 'natural consequences to sex' (which clearly threw us off track) was to explain how most people would perceive the usual consequence to unprotected sex, which is relevant to show that they've implicitly accepted the consequence.
Sex is short for "Sexual intercourse", which is certainly not all about procreation. It is still a circular definition, because of how you are defining it. In short, then, if a man doesn't use a condom, he can't complain if the woman turns up pregnant and wants him to contribute to its support despite the fact that he doesn't want kids, because he made that choice, too, when he had sex. I'd actually like to see men take responsibility for their own sex organs, too. But so many men put the onus on the woman to make any and all reproductive choices when it comes to sex. They don't want to wear a condom, but vigorously blame the woman if she gets pregnant.
Okay, what if both parties are using contraception, and it fails? Who is responsible in that case? Since this can happen, too. Does the man owe the woman half the cost of the abortion, since neither wanted the child?