Solving the dilemma of rape; consent

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DevilWithaHalo

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Before we get started I wanted to make a note that my intention behind this thread is one of constructive discussion. I did not make this thread to discuss how common the issue is, the statistics or research surrounding it, who has it worse, whether or not two drunk people are raping each other, etc. I would suggest that anyone turning it into one is simply ignored. This thread is about problem solving, not blame. It?s also about realistic problem solving; teaching people not to do something doesn?t stop some people from doing it. Just keep that in mind.

There is a fundamental problem with Rape in our society; our ability to accurately determine the crime. When something is stolen, we can demonstrate the exchange of location and ownership; usually verifiable by recites, the sudden and unexplainable acquisition of an item or finances by parties or demonstrating previous ownership through other means. When someone is murdered; we can provide a body and forensic evidence tying murder weapons to the possession of the assailant. When someone is defrauded, we can point to their lack of mental capacities to understand contractual obligations, we can demonstrate the lack of equivalent exchange of promised services and/or goods. All random examples which change from situation to situation, I certainly can?t cover all of them.

But with the crime of Rape, we have the problem of demonstrating consent; which is the critical part of the discussion. Forensic evidence can only show that the two people had contact (sexual or otherwise) with each other, but it has no current ability to determine consent. And of course, forensic evidence becomes less and less affective the long someone waits to report the crime. We attempt to demonstrate consent with the only two things we have; the people?s words, and examples of which to determine the veracity of their words. This sometimes involves diving into the two individuals past experiences and decisions which may or may not affect the jury?s bias toward them. This has brought us to rape shields laws and legislation that prevents certain questions from being raised.

There have been some suggestions to solving this problem; using trained psychologists and lie detector tests. Neither of these is currently being implemented in standard procedure, and I would wager a guess in saying most people would find some fault in the two methods; psychologists being wrong, psychology not being a hard science, lie detectors being inaccurate based on emotional reaction, the ability to cheat a lie detector, etc.

Solving this problem would address nearly every single concern someone has on the issue; the ability to be taken seriously during reports, insuring victims have solid evidence to use against rapists, insuring the innocent aren?t falsely accused, etc. There is no party or position that doesn?t win from finding a way to make consent provable (either way) to the authorities or in court.

How would you propose to solve the problem of determining consent?
 

Genocidicles

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I think lie detector tests can be bluffed quite easily if you know what you're doing, and someone could probably bluff a psychologist.

I think the only ways of solving this would involve us living in a world straight out of Orwell's nightmares, with cameras everywhere, and maybe implanted in people's brains.

Or we could live in a bureaucratic nightmare world where you and your partner had to fill in consent forms in triplicate before you get your groove on.
 

Terminal Blue

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DevilWithaHalo said:
You've over-complicated what is actually a really, really simple issue.

Did the person accused of rape believe their partner had consented

If "yes" then it's not rape. If "no", then it is rape. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea.

At the core of it, that's the basic calculation. In some cases, there may be conditions to test the reasonability of belief, but the basic principle nonetheless applies.

The mere idea that a modern rape trial would spend time pissing around with lie detectors and using sophisticated interrogation techniques on people who have the balls (metaphorically speaking) to bring a case is just dumb.. what's next, ducking? In fact, whether or not they did consent in some kind of ephemeral internal fashion is kind of an academic point. What's actually being tried is the intent of the accused.
 

Darken12

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You can determine vaginal rape through the use of forensic evidence by searching for penetration tears in the inner vaginal walls, towards the cervix area. If there are tears there, it's almost always due to rape (tears near the inner labia can be occurred from "rough sex" and aren't conclusive evidence of rape), as the vagina is not properly lubricated and contracts in an attempt to expel the assailant's penetration.

This, however, does nothing when it comes to date rape, coercion or any other form of rape/sexual assault where there isn't a clear attempt from the woman to resist penetration. If the woman was rendered unconscious (or nearly so) and raped, this evidence is not likely to be found.

Anal tearing is of dubious acceptance in court, since the anal mucosa is far more fragile than its vaginal counterpart, so it can get torn for reasons other than rape.

Personally, I take a leaf from feminism on this one: Enthusiastic Consent [http://suite101.com/article/using-enthusiastic-consent-to-fight-rape-culture-a96089] (another, more extensive link [http://yesmeansyesblog.wordpress.com/2011/01/03/the-nonexistent-terrible-horrible-no-good-very-bad-consequences-of-enthusiastic-consent/]).

All people having sex should, at all times, constantly express enthusiastic consent until they're done having sex. If they stop doing so, everyone else involved should also stop and communicate in order to figure out what's wrong and what the person who stopped giving enthusiastic consent wants to do. We should banish the idea that "one person wants to have sex, the other one kind of doesn't but goes along with it" is okay or that "one person wants to have sex, the other one doesn't, so the first one barrages/coerces the second one until they give in" is acceptable behaviour. The only kind of sex that should exist should be that where all participants are enthusiastically consenting at all times.

From an external perspective (particularly law enforcement), I prefer to err on the side of the victim, always. If they claim that they withdrew consent (or never gave it) and were subsequently raped or sexually assaulted, they should be treated with dignity and respect and never with doubt or suspicion.
 

DevilWithaHalo

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evilthecat said:
Did the person accused of rape believe their partner had consented

If "yes" then it's not rape. If "no", then it is rape.
How do you propose to prove/disprove the veracity of their statement?

I would agree with you that the principle is simple, but the application is certainly open to question. I can take your previous statements as evidence the issue is certainly more complex...

You state here, and have stated in previous discussions, that it falls to the accused to determine the appropriate consent from the accuser.

You have stated previously, and continue to support that an accuser, who is acting as the witness to the crime, is and must be taken seriously. Subsequently, the authorities must act as if though a crime has been committed.

So if we are to insure that both parties are taken seriously, and both statements are true until proven otherwise, how can we determine that justice is done?

You are not proposing a solution; you have simply reworded the problem, intent as opposed to consent.
 

Terminal Blue

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DevilWithaHalo said:
How do you propose to prove/disprove the veracity of their statement?
The same way you do in any other crime requiring intent, or are you suggesting that it's impossible to convict someone of murder?

You take a statement from anyone involved. You submit that statement to a court. Prosecution and defense lawyers will then call the people who gave those statements and ask them specific questions.

If, based on this process, the presiding authority (judge or jury) is at least 91% certain the crime in question occurred and the accused is responsible, it has been proven guilty.
 

Karoshi

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evilthecat said:
You've over-complicated what is actually a really, really simple issue.

Did the person accused of rape believe their partner had consented

If "yes" then it's not rape. If "no", then it is rape. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea.
Wait, what?! Do you realize that most rapists don't even classify what they did as rape? "She was asking for." "All women are whores." "I gave her gifts and now she owes me." "She wouldn't dress that way if she didn't want sex."

Not to speak of the times when the partner is incapacipated due to drinks or drugs and doesn't have any say in that matter. So yeah, it takes two people to consent, not just the intent of one.
 

Terminal Blue

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Karoshi said:
Wait, what?! Do you realize that most rapists don't even classify what they did as rape?
Which is why I did not type "did the person accused of rape believe that they had raped someone."

You don't need to know you have committed a crime in order to have committed it, but you do need to have a "guilty mind" in this case. All of the cases you describe are cases in which a person (mistakenly) does not believe consent is required, they are not cases in which a person sincerely believes that their partner has consented. When someone does sincerely believe that, the person does not have a guilty mind even if their actions resulted in trauma or hurt to someone else.

Now, there are massive problems with this. In the UK, one of the big ones used to be the Morgan Defense (an argument where the defense will claim that the accused's belief in consent, while unreasonable and irrational, was nonetheless sincere and thus they cannot be guilty - it is still usable in some countries). This is why in the UK today your belief in consent must be "reasonable". That means if a hypothetical sane person with knowledge of the law could see (given the same circumstances as you faced) that your belief in consent was wrong, then you can still be found guilty.

We need to stop thinking that if someone doesn't get a successful rape conviction they weren't raped. Statistically, we all have to face the fact that they may well have been and even if they haven't they may still have perfectly legitimate grounds to feel that they have been. Whether someone has suffered and whether we can send someone to prison for it are different issues, and will never completely coincide.
 

DevilWithaHalo

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evilthecat said:
The same way you do in any other crime requiring intent, or are you suggesting that it's impossible to convict someone of murder?
I believe I already stated that murder usually involves a body with corroborating forensic evidence. Regardless, we do tend to change the crime based on intent (Murder in the 1st degree as opposed to Murder in the 2nd degree, or just plain manslaughter). We would still charge the accused with some kind of crime (assuming a conviction of some kind).
evilthecat said:
You take a statement from anyone involved. You submit that statement to a court. Prosecution and defense lawyers will then call the people who gave those statements and ask them specific questions.
Your opinion of Rape Shield laws?
evilthecat said:
If, based on this process, the presiding authority (judge or jury) is at least 91% certain a crime has occurred, it has been proven guilty.
So you oppose measures to drop the percentage required to convict?

Are you currently satisfied with the why it's handled currently?
 

Terminal Blue

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DevilWithaHalo said:
I believe I already stated that murder usually involves a body with corroborating forensic evidence.
So does manslaughter.

What differentiates murder is purely intent. If it was impossible to prove intent, noone would ever be convicted of murder.

I resent this idea that rape is treated hugely differently from other crimes. Historically, it certainly has been, but not in the way you think.

DevilWithaHalo said:
Your opinion of Rape Shield laws?
If you mean laws which prevent cross-examination about a person's sexual history, then I completely support them. A person's sexual history not relevant to establishing innocence or guilt, it is purely intended to defame the character or weaken the testimony of a witness. The only way it would be relevant is if you were trying to claim that someone is so slutty they couldn't possibly have said no to sex, which is insane and stupid.

We don't normally admit prejudicial evidence about someone's character into criminal proceedings unless it's relevant to the crime, and since in this case it's completely unrelated to the object in question, i.e. the defendants state of mind and belief in consent, it should be inadmissible.

If the court system is continuing to allow this kind of behavior, I see no issue addressing it specifically in legislation. That's partly what legislation is for.

DevilWithaHalo said:
So you oppose measures to drop the percentage required to convict?
Of course.

We don't do that in any other crime. We don't need to do that in any other crime. Why do it here?

This is the issue with you and me. We have always both been arguing the same thing, that rape should be treated like any other crime. The difference is that you seem to have a completely incomprehensible (to me, at least) idea of how and why it isn't.

DevilWithaHalo said:
Are you currently satisfied with the why it's handled currently?
Not entirely. But I'm certainly happier than I would have been 20 or 30 years ago.
 

Sonofadiddly

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evilthecat said:
DevilWithaHalo said:
You've over-complicated what is actually a really, really simple issue.

Did the person accused of rape believe their partner had consented

If "yes" then it's not rape. If "no", then it is rape. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea.

At the core of it, that's the basic calculation. In some cases, there may be conditions to test the reasonability of belief, but the basic principle nonetheless applies.

The mere idea that a modern rape trial would spend time pissing around with lie detectors and using sophisticated interrogation techniques on people who have the balls (metaphorically speaking) to bring a case is just dumb.. what's next, ducking? In fact, whether or not they did consent in some kind of ephemeral internal fashion is kind of an academic point. What's actually being tried is the intent of the accused.
I'm not sure I agree. I've heard a lot about confusion involving consent. Specifically, I come across scores of people who believe that if they have sex with a women who is so drunk as to be unable to really stand up or speak coherently, it's consensual and not rape, and don't realize that someone so impaired is unable to give consent. Should someone who commits rape but is ignorant of the lack of consent walk free? Isn't it true that ignorance of the law is no excuse?

I am also in favor of promoting enthusiastic consent, as well as generally cleaning up how the public treats sex. We send all these messages to kids that sex is forbidden and not to be talked about, yet they absolutely must have it as much as possible. Is it any wonder that we have so much trouble with consent? If we could approach sex like mature adults, no problem.
 

repeating integers

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Sonofadiddly said:
I'm not sure I agree. I've heard a lot about confusion involving consent. Specifically, I come across scores of people who believe that if they have sex with a women who is so drunk as to be unable to really stand up or speak coherently, it's consensual and not rape, and don't realize that someone so impaired is unable to give consent. Should someone who commits rape but is ignorant of the lack of consent walk free? Isn't it true that ignorance of the law is no excuse?
This brings to mind a question that came up in the other (abortive, abominable and apocalyptically awful) thread and wasn't really answered: If a woman gets significantly drunk and asks you very insistently to have sex with her, are you raping her if you consent? What if she regrets it afterwards?

This isn't just addressed to you btw, I'd appreciate answers from anyone.
 

Sonofadiddly

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OhJohnNo said:
Sonofadiddly said:
I'm not sure I agree. I've heard a lot about confusion involving consent. Specifically, I come across scores of people who believe that if they have sex with a women who is so drunk as to be unable to really stand up or speak coherently, it's consensual and not rape, and don't realize that someone so impaired is unable to give consent. Should someone who commits rape but is ignorant of the lack of consent walk free? Isn't it true that ignorance of the law is no excuse?
This brings to mind a question that came up in the other (abortive, abominable and apocalyptically awful) thread and wasn't really answered: If a woman gets significantly drunk and asks you very insistently to have sex with her, are you raping her if you consent? What if she regrets it afterwards?

This isn't just addressed to you btw, I'd appreciate answers from anyone.
This is exactly why the crime of rape is so messy, and why promoting enthusiastic consent is so necessary. How drunk is "significantly?" Where do you draw the line? Without specific details, I cannot answer your question.

What I will say is that if a woman feels she was raped, her feelings are entirely valid and she absolutely needs support. Also, if a woman is drunk, don't have sex with her unless she has previously told you WHILE SOBER that it's okay to have sex with her when she's drunk. Don't do it. Don't. Because bad things happen. I don't care how hard she insists. I don't get into cars with people who are drunk behind the wheel, no matter how hard they beg or how sweet the car is.

All things said can also be applied to all other genders. Ass covered.
 

DevilWithaHalo

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evilthecat said:
So does manslaughter.
Yes, but Rape doesn?t have a body in the same way that manslaughter does. The whole lack of evidence thing.
evilthecat said:
What differentiates murder is purely intent. If it was impossible to prove intent, noone would ever be convicted of murder.
That begs the question; how does one prove the ?intent? of another to commit the crime? And can this process be applied in the same way to rape crimes?
evilthecat said:
I resent this idea that rape is treated hugely differently from other crimes. Historically, it certainly has been, but not in the way you think.
I only make these points because like all crimes, Rape has specific laws that govern it. I wouldn?t say ?hugely?, but enough to question why the process of it is so different considering the claims that so few Rapists are prosecuted. It may be perhaps because of social stigma, of the lack of supporting evidence, I don?t know. And considering the way your law is worded across the pond, gender specific terminology does differentiate it from other crimes. Not being in your country, how do you think it?s treated comparatively to other crimes?
evilthecat said:
If you mean laws which prevent cross-examination about a person's sexual history, then I completely support them. A person's sexual history not relevant to establishing innocence or guilt, it is purely intended to defame the character or weaken the testimony of a witness. The only way it would be relevant is if you were trying to claim that someone is so slutty they couldn't possibly have said no to sex, which is insane and stupid.
What beyond testimony does one have in most Rape Cases? Isn?t the idea of demonstrating the character of the individual crucial to establishing that their claim is reasonable?

And what about the accused? Can their sexual history, one rout with consensual sex, not be permissible in court as supporting argument they had no cause to assume this encounter was anything beyond par for them?
evilthecat said:
We don't normally admit prejudicial evidence about someone's character into criminal proceedings unless it's relevant to the crime, and since in this case it's completely unrelated to the object in question, i.e. the defendants state of mind and belief in consent, it should be inadmissible.
Consider the accused may have believed in consent based on the sexual history of the accuser, it may need to be permissible.

Consider also that the accuser?s sexual history includes their experience(s) with the accused. In spousal rape for example; wouldn?t it be permissible to discuss the differences of consensual and non consensual sex given the accuser has firsthand knowledge of both?
evilthecat said:
If the court system is continuing to allow this kind of behavior, I see no issue addressing it specifically in legislation. That's partly what legislation is for.
Perhaps a change in the courts as opposed to actual legislation then?
evilthecat said:
Of course.
Good to know.
evilthecat said:
We don't do that in any other crime. We don't need to do that in any other crime. Why do it here?
I don?t know the motivations of those that are attempting to, all I know is that they are attempting to.
evilthecat said:
This is the issue with you and me. We have always both been arguing the same thing, that rape should be treated like any other crime. The difference is that you seem to have a completely incomprehensible (to me, at least) idea of how and why it isn't.
Perhaps because the laws in my country don?t treat it the same, nor do the social reactions to it remain consistent across the board, nor do the courts even maintain a consistent approach to the proceedings and convictions.

Granted, some of this can?t really be helped. But I?m *attempting* to look at this from the perspective of one who makes the claim that there isn?t enough being done regarding how we deal with the crimes, and a realistic solution to the problem. This could also provide the courts a way to better handle the issue considering they have something to discuss other than two individuals claims of intent and consent baring their sexual histories from discussion.
evilthecat said:
Not entirely. But I'm certainly happier than I would have been 20 or 30 years ago.
What proposals would you suggest regarding improvement?
Sonofadiddly said:
What I will say is that if a woman feels she was raped, her feelings are entirely valid and she absolutely needs support.
A poor basis for criminal proceedings don't you think? Regardless, how do you propose she proves she did not consent?
 

Sonofadiddly

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DevilWithaHalo said:
Sonofadiddly said:
What I will say is that if a woman feels she was raped, her feelings are entirely valid and she absolutely needs support.
A poor basis for criminal proceedings don't you think? Regardless, how do you propose she proves she did not consent?
Ah, my mistake. I did not mean to imply that if a woman feels she was raped, it is proof of rape or should always lead to a conviction. Just that in general her feelings are valid and no one should tell her that she shouldn't feel that way. Same as anything, don't tell people they shouldn't have their feelings.
 

Sonofadiddly

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Dijkstra said:
I think he'd probably go with the UK law he mentioned:

This is why in the UK today your belief in consent must be "reasonable". That means if a hypothetical sane person with knowledge of the law could see (given the same circumstances as you faced) that your belief in consent was wrong, then you can still be found guilty.
With knowledge of the law, needs to be reasonable, etc.
Indeed, he probably would.

I guess I just have a problem with trying to oversimplify the issue. What is "reasonable" is entirely subjective, and so the simple statement that rape doesn't happen if the person believed that they had obtained consent doesn't work. They may believe it, but not be reasonable.
 

Darken12

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OhJohnNo said:
This brings to mind a question that came up in the other (abortive, abominable and apocalyptically awful) thread and wasn't really answered: If a woman gets significantly drunk and asks you very insistently to have sex with her, are you raping her if you consent? What if she regrets it afterwards?

This isn't just addressed to you btw, I'd appreciate answers from anyone.
A person can withdraw consent at any time they want. Even if they themselves initiate sexual contact or sex itself, they can at any point, decide that they want to stop (and, obviously, their sexual partners should respect that immediately). The problem with alcohol is that it may impair not only their mental faculties, but also their physical abilities, making them incapable of verbally or physically conveying the fact that they have stopped giving consent. This is why drunk sex is almost always a Very Bad Thing.

Keep in mind that blood alcohol levels aren't constant. If a person drinks two martinis or so, gets frisky with someone, then downs six or seven shots of tequila and a tall glass of vodka, continues being frisky and consents to sex, then goes to the bedroom with the person in tow, they will eventually suffer a huge blood alcohol level spike when the vodka and tequila are digested and the alcohol passes from their intestines to their blood stream. This can happen anywhere from 15 minutes to over half an hour after consuming the alcoholic beverage (and takes longer on a full stomach), so it's very possible for a person to be slightly to somewhat drunk, consent to sex, then get a massive spike in their blood alcohol level and become unable to verbalise their lack of consent or physically stop the person they're having sex with.

EDIT: So, to answer your question: you might be raping someone if you have sex with them while being excessively drunk. If they drink enough to significantly impair their verbal and physical capabilities, and are not capable of expressing if they've stopped giving consent, having sex with them is much like having sex with someone who is unconscious or bound and gagged.