DevilWithaHalo said:
That begs the question; how does one prove the ?intent? of another to commit the crime? And can this process be applied in the same way to rape crimes?
The same as any other thing is proved, by providing evidence which convinces the judge or jury to a very high standard that the defendant is guilty of the crime they have been accused of. A particular type of evidence is not required, neither does it have to be more than testimony, it just has to be very convincing to the point that whoever is making the judgement is nearly certain that the defendant committed the crime.
Theoretically, at least, the same process already is applied to rape trials and pretty much always has. The problem is actually that judges and juries in rape trials have historically been far more difficult to convince of guilt in any case other than a few incredibly rare forms of stranger rape which fit a popular narrative (such as when the defendant is black).
DevilWithaHalo said:
And considering the way your law is worded across the pond, gender specific terminology does differentiate it from other crimes. Not being in your country, how do you think it?s treated comparatively to other crimes?
The only gender specific terminology, really, is the requirement that the object doing the penetrating be a penis, and there is a functionally identical crime with exactly the same sentencing guidelines called "Assault By Penetration" which doesn't have this specification. It's the next one down from rape on the Sexual Offenses act.
I'm unsure how I feel about that. On one hand, I can see the logic because, as any radiologist will tell you, assault by penetration is generally not a sexual crime. It's a horrible crime and its only right that it is treated equally, but I think it can be sufficiently different that maybe we do need a separate offence.
Long term, I think we will need gender neutral language, but I worry that at this point in time it could actually be detrimental because actually.. a lot of people who commit these kinds of crimes
see it as gendered. They see their actions as part of a natural order of relations between men and women, or they see resistance as just a part of female psychology. I think it risks divorcing court language from the real language in which the people involved in the case are going to want to talk about it, making the process arcane and incomprehensible to the very people involved in it.
We already have a good example (Canada) of a country which wholesale adopted gender neutral language. I think we should watch Canada very closely and see what happens there, if it turns out to be a huge success which leads to positive changes in the legal procedure, then I think the rest of the world should move towards adopting it. For now, I don't think it's a very big issue. I don't think it lowers reporting rates, I don't think it causes misinformation and I don't really see any evidence that it legitimately effects the chances of securing a conviction either positively or negatively. I could be wrong, and if I am I'll change my mind, but until then it's not that big a deal for me.
DevilWithaHalo said:
What beyond testimony does one have in most Rape Cases? Isn?t the idea of demonstrating the character of the individual crucial to establishing that their claim is reasonable?
You can have a huge amount of evidence in rape cases. None of it is likely to be definitive, but then again unless your defendant shot someone execution style in the head at point blank range in a crowded street you may well not find any definitive evidence in a murder case, either. If there is so much circumstantial evidence as to make an alternative account extremely unlikely, it can result in you being found guilty. There doesn't need to be a single smoking gun.
DevilWithaHalo said:
And what about the accused?
Actually, their sexual history is far more likely to be relevant because it may go some way towards establishing their state of mind, which if you'll remember is what is actually in question here. If it doesn't though, then yeah, it shouldn't be admitted.
The point is that "this woman has consented to sex with other men. She had sex with this man. Therefore she
must have consented to sex with this man" is not an acceptable argument to defend someone from a rape allegation. It would still be perfectly acceptable to ask the defendant if he
thought his alleged victim was promiscuous, because that might be relevant to his intent, but you can't use this kind of propensity evidence to suggest that someone
must have consented because they have done so in the past.. it's insane, and it needs to stop if it's still happening anywhere.
DevilWithaHalo said:
Perhaps a change in the courts as opposed to actual legislation then?
Well, as far as I'm aware that's pretty much what happened over here. However, if you have a country where it isn't happening and where laws are seen to be interpreted in an unfair way, then a democratically elected legislature has every right to amend them, update them or add to them specifically to correct the perceived problems with the court's interpretation. After all, the judiciary has limited powers too.
DevilWithaHalo said:
What proposals would you suggest regarding improvement?
That's potentially quite a long answer and I need to not spend too much of my life on forums.
I might look at answering tomorrow.