ugeine said:
Mimsofthedawg said:
I knew someone would say this. And that's the exact same thing I said. I won't get into a major argument here, but I'll give you this basic idea. Before the 1700's, England was greatly influenced by a multitude of different languages. what I'm referring to happened well after this, thus your points about all those other languages are null. I am not disputing that "fact", it simply irrelevant to the time table I established.
Next, you're absolutely right about the standardized english, but from my research, during the 1800's when this occurred in England, it started with the elites of society to "franconize" England.
But as I said, this didn't stop with language. It went from everything, including archetecture, clothing, philosophy, etc.
Even many of England's modern political ideologies have roots in French society (it's ok, so does America's).
Does that make a bit more sense?
Oh, and the reason why America has the more pure form is because America existed away from the influence of other European nations. Although all languages have changed radically over the last one-hundred years, America is more rooted in original, non-elitist english.
Mate, the language was heavily influenced by French culture as early as the 1200s. My own surname, 'Marshall' comes from the old French for servant and came into the language around the same time of the Norman invasion.
Samuel Johnson and the standardisation of the English language in the 1800s had absolutely nothing to do with wanting to seem more French. I'm not sure if you know your French / English history to well, but during this period (from about 1750 - 1850) The French Revolutions were under way and British aristocracy and nobility were fearful of the French, and scared that a similar thing could have happened over here.
It would have been the Chartists who would have been influenced by France, and more their politics then anything.
And how can a language that's made up of several different European languages become 'less pure' when it is influenced by a European language?
I feel like my point's not getting across.
And what would really help is if I had my sources, but unfortunately I researched this years ago.
The only thing that I'm very annoyed about is when I get this, "Look man, France has influenced English for almost a thousand years, not a couple hundred. You obviously don't know what you're talking about."
I know that. I know that VERY well. I'm not talking about the influence French or any other language had on English past 200 years ago. As I said before, THAT'S IRRELEVANT! It has nothing to do with my statement that France influenced English about 200 years ago.
Here, I'll fix it:
Everyone knows that the French influenced english, but few seem to understand the drastic implications the French language had on English just 200 years ago.
Does that satisfy the, "BUT FRENCH HAS ALWAYS INFLUENCED ENGLISH!" crowd?
good.
Now on to the actual point: Maybe if I put it in this way, you'll get it more: In the 1800's, England standardized English to appease and sound more civil to the other royal courts of Europe. Because of the beauty of the French language, the standardized version compiled many French tones and accents into the English language (Such as saying colour vs. color. Pronounce that; what sounds more "fancy"?). America, having become independent from England, never acquired these "traits" in their version of English, thus American-English represents an older, "purer" form of what original English was; before some guys in England decided to "Europeanize" or "Franco-nize" it.
Does that help? I suppose it's improper for me to say that the "French" influenced England, it's more like the English sat there and said, "hey, the French say things kinda cool, *insert epiphany here* WHAT IF WE SAID THINGS COOL TOO?!"
The last thing I'd say is: The only real reason why I put this in the first place is because people from outside America seem to burst a vain when they hear this, and that is amusing.
EDIT: Just because I know people on the escapist, I can just see someone nit-picking with my "to appease and sound more civil to the other royal courts of Europe..." comment. If you're gonna comment on this, just don't worry about that, I don't want to explain how, what, who, when, where, or why. I just want people to understand I DO have a justifiable reason to believe this basic idea.