Scout Tactical said:
I personally believe that the reason it was translated as "slave" in some editions is that it was politically convenient at the time to have religious backing for slavery. This is well documented in American history, so I don't know why it wouldn't be in Europe.
When you say "politically convenient" I assume you mean convenient for basically everyone of wealth and power all the way up to the 18th and 19th centuries.
Really, I think we'd need an expert in translation to know for certain, but you cannot seriously assert that it WASN'T politically beneficial for the local lords to be able to restrain their slaves by telling them it was god's will.
If, by "local lords", you are referring to the people that wrote the Bible in the first place I completely agree.
Those points aside, arguing the semantics of this one line is unnecessary. The Bible's view on slavery is quite clear. It gives detailed instructions on how you can acquire slaves, who you can have as slaves, how much you should pay for them, how badly you can beat them, and more. Now, before you pull the "but that's the Old Testament" argument, you should know that Jesus quite clearly stated that every word of the OT is still completely true and binding. Therefore, he supports slavery.