Cheeze_Pavilion said:
Because the exam review board split evenly, 2-2, on whether to certify the exam results (with one member recusing herself based upon a conflict of interest), they were not certified.
Did you miss the part where half of those board members wanted to certify the results? So, the split decision proves exactly nothing; half for, half against with default permitting discarding the test reults. So next should we not question the reasoning of the members voting to discard the results? "The city could get sued by the minorities who didn't pass the test" . . . they were afraid of a political backlash and negative publicity, which ironically is what they got anyway, their decision was politcally motivated. The City acted in what half of them thought was the "politically correct" way, how hard is that to comprehend?
Well, if you're going to stop reading your source as soon as you see facts that support your desire to find "political correctness" as you call it, and not read the very next paragraph, let alone:
*Citation omitted*
I think we'll have to agree to disagree on what is "clearly an example" and what isn't.
I read every single word of that text, and came to the conclusion that a person with experience taking the tests, the designers of the tests and ONE less person than the majority thought that the test results should be certified, and that the denied firefighters were wrongly deprived, for political reasons, of promotions that they had earned; the Supreme Court seems to think there might be something to this argument. We will have to wait and see.
So, the actions of the City we taken for POLITCAL reasons to be socially CORRECT, the actions were taken for political correctness.
And *why* do you people keep calling *everything* you don't like "political correctness"? Political correctness is about language, not employment decisions or hate crimes. Why do you people keep lumping everything in under this one term? It's kinda hard to argue that your arguments aren't just examples of mindless complaining when you can't keep the things you're complaining about distinct in your discussion of them.
YOU define political correctness as SOLELY language, the rest of the World defines it as:
adj. Abbr. PC
Of, relating to, or supporting broad social, political, and educational change, especially to redress historical injustices in matters such as race, class, gender, and sexual orientation.
Being or perceived as being overconcerned with such change, often to the exclusion of other matters.
political correctness n.
The American Heritage® Dictionary of the English Language, Fourth Edition
Copyright © 2009 by Houghton Mifflin Company.
So language, employment decisions, legislation to classify criminal motives and societal thought control fit just fine under that definition. Maybe you didn't understand what it meant, and that's fine. I bolded the original reason for my participation in this topic; overconcern.
Maybe in the county where you people come from: in American law, "malice" is a term of art that means 'A wicked intention to do an injury'
http://www.lectlaw.com/def2/m075.htm
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Malice_(legal_term)
Under American law, both the person who hates their victim and the cold blooded contract killer that has no feelings whatsoever for the victim--who does not even know the victim's name--both act with 'malice'.
Black's Law Dictionary (8th ed. 2004), malice
MALICE
malice, n. 1. The intent, without justification or excuse, to commit a wrongful act. 2. Reckless disregard of the law or of a person's legal rights. 3. Ill will; wickedness of heart. ? This sense is most typical in nonlegal contexts.
I'll interrupt right here to point out that the 3rd definition is what would be most closely related to the word "hate" and that the definition is not a legal term, meaning that there isn't even a legal terminology for "hate" as a motivation, all un justified motives were considered malicious, until "hate" was created by political correctness.
"Malice means in law wrongful intention. It includes any intent which the law deems wrongful, and which therefore serves as a ground of liability. Any act done with such an intent is, in the language of the law, malicious, and this legal usage has etymology in its favour. The Latin malitia means badness, physical or moral -- wickedness in disposition or in conduct -- not specifically or exclusively ill-will or malevolence; hence the malice of English law, including all forms of evil purpose, design, intent, or motive. . . .
Would acting out of ignorant "hate" satisfy the criteria of the definition of malice? Is acting out of hate a "wrongful intention"? Yes. Is it a form of evil prupose, design, intent or motive? Yes. So far it looks like malice and hate are interchangeable.
[M]alice in the legal sense imports (1) the absence of all elements of justification, excuse or recognized mitigation, and (2) the presence of either (a) an actual intent to cause the particular harm which is produced or harm of the same general nature, or (b) the wanton and wilful doing of an act with awareness of a plain and strong likelihood that such harm may result.... The Model Penal Code does not use 'malice' because those who formulated the Code had a blind prejudice against the word. This is very regrettable because it represents a useful concept despite some unfortunate language employed at times in the effort to express it." Rollin M. Perkins & Ronald N. Boyce, Criminal Law 860 (3d ed. 1982).
Go ahead and tell me how hate is legally different than malice. And if it's not different, then is it really necessary to create a new classification for crimes, based on that non-existent difference?
Now we come to the crux of your argument.
If my society only had retribution as a goal of its criminal laws. However, it does not. It also has incapacitation and deterrence as a goal:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Retributive_justice
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deterrence_(legal)
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recidivism
When someone is murdered for hate, they're murdered for hate *specific to that person*. When a murder is termed a hate crime, someone got murdered for being part of a group. That's the difference between a hate crime murder and a regular murder: in a regular murder the hate--if there even is hate--is specific to the person while in a hate crime it is generalized against a group.
Your argument is that "malice" directed, and all murders involve malice since "hate" is a general language term shoe-horned into a legal term, at an individual for personal reasons is less harmful than "malice" directed at an individual because they belong to a specific GROUP of people? That argument makes absolutely no sense, and you have ZERO evidence to show that it does.
Now, why is that important? Because crimes that occur because of generalized hate against a group as opposed to specific hate towards an individual are more dangerous to civil order. The reasoning behind hate crimes is no different than that behind why you go to jail longer for assaulting a police officer--or even a bus driver--than for regular assault: it's not that blacks and police officers are better people than the rest of us, it's because the kind of people who assault blacks for being black or police officers in the performance of their duties cause more disruption to the civil order than those who commit regular assaults. Hence, more severe penalties.
Here we come to the glaring flaw in your argument; people are punished more severely for committing crimes against police officers and civil servants
precisely because society places more value on their lives, than it does the lives of regular citizens. I disagree with this premise. And now you want to extend that over-valuation to people who are minorities, where as I want to ensure that ALL peoples welfare, liberty and lives are valued equally.
The reason there are hate crime laws is because people who commit hate crimes have no reason to stop until they've killed/hurt/etc. a whole bunch of people they have absolutely no connection to. That's why they have stiffer penalties: they indicate that person is a more dangerous criminal than someone who commits a regular crime, just like people who kill for money or who are willing to kill a witness to get away with a crime or who will kill a cop to avoid being arrested.
This argument is fallacious, and unfounded as well, you argue that people who ignorantly hate other groups are more likely to cause widespread societal harm, I will define "societal harm" in this sense as a higher body count, than people who just hate society in general? Nonsense.
I'll cite you some examples of why your argument is wrong. The biggest "massacres" in recent history were committed by people who did not have specific bigotry as there motive, but I would argue were motivated by general hate. The Virginia Tech shooting, not motivated by bigotry, but certainly malicious. The Shooting in Binghamton
may have been specific bias motivated, it's questionable because he never said anything about a specific person or class of people and there are only generalized opinions that the shooter was mocked for his poor english, but the shooter didn't chose a random group, he went to a place he had "connections" with, and acted with "hatred". The Columbine massacre, yup those guys shot up people they had "connections" with too, and in depth researchers have shown that these psychos were not the "loners and outcasts" they were originally portrayed as, but they sure had a general "hatred" for society. The Beltway shooters, were accused of being "terrorists" out to harm America, but the evidence proving that motive was flimsy at best, their hatred of society in general was pretty obvious.
"Hate" crimes as you would define them are actually limited to much more personal and specific instances, showing that they are't this impending apocalypse that requires immediate legislation.
Bias motivated crimes, especially the well known ones, like the murder of Matthew Shepard, more often involve a single individual killed by bigots who they had "connections" with. James Byrd the man dragged to death by bigots in Texas, yup also a case of individuals who had "connections" with the victim. More recently, the murder of Tuba Man in Seattle has been characterized as a bias motivated crime, and it too resulted in a single death.
These crimes do NOT cut a swath of bias based destruction through the country. They result in less body counts than general crimes against society, and there are far fewer of them per year than there are regular homicides, and assaults. So why then do they require more legal regulation? Right, because we want to place a HIGHER VALUE on the lives of SOME Americans.
Some crime stats:
2005:1,823,300(total violent crimes, including rape robbery aggravated assault, and homicide)
Hate crime as percent of --
All crime 0.8 % 0.9 %
Source: Bureau of Justice web site.
So Hate crimes are less than 1% of all crimes committed, are they especially heinous, are the victims more dead, raped or injured because of the motivation of the perpetrators? No they are not. So your argument that they are more damaging to society is false.
The majority of so-called hate crimes are much more personal and individualized than you argue. Your entire argument about greater harm to society caused by bigots, thus requiring laws specifically aimed at the criminals motives falls apart under any kind of scrutiny.
The only justification that can be given, for creating a distinct category of "hate" crime, is social disapproval of personal beliefs, and thats an intolerable reason for legislation.
You now see how completely wrong you are about that, right? At least when talking about my society? I don't know what the justice system is like in your society--I'm not familiar with a jurisdiction where "malice" means "hate" so I have no idea where you live.
No, I don't see how I'm wrong, and I have given you evidence as to why I'm right; where as you rely on insults and generalizations as the basis of your argument.
And I have shown why your argument that "malice" and "hatred" mean different things is also wrong; the word "hate" is not a legal term, and the word "malice" can apply to any crime that you would classify as a "hate" crime. You seem to argue that the reason for that malice is important, and I argue that it isn't.
You want to see the creation of a punishment classification based on the beliefs that people have, and that's not only ignorant, it's scary. A human life is a human life, and ALL of us should be afforded the same liberty and welfare.
Elevating the societal worth of any human life above the rest is terrible and should be condemned. This includes political, religious or famous people.
I do admit that it is unrealistic to expect individuals to agree with this premise, in their personal lives, since personally I value the life of my friends and family above the lives of strangers. But I am not talking about private individuals, I'm talking about the LAW. And I hold the LAW to a much higher standard than I hold individuals.
P.S. I get what you are trying to prove with the classification as "you people" those who disagree with your stated viewpoint. But since I'm not arguing for "politically correct language" my pointing out of your hypocrisy was just to show that you don't really believe in it either.